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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q215-Q220):

NEW QUESTION # 215
A new patient, a 19-year-old man, presents to your office with low back pain. He has a history of opioid dependence and is now on a methadone maintenance treatment program. He is requesting opiate analgesics.
After examination, you decide not to prescribe opiates for pain control. The patient gets upset and threatens to file a complaint with your licensing authority. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Call the police to have the patient removed from the office.
B. Send him for a lumbar spinal radiography.
C. Prescribe a small amount of oral opiate.
D. Direct him to his methadone management program.
E. Give a single opiate injection.

Answer: D

Explanation:
MCCQE ELOM objectives stress that physicians must prescribe controlled substances responsibly, use evidence-based pain management, and maintain professional boundaries despite pressure or threats of complaints. A threat to complain does not obligate opioid prescribing, especially in a patient with opioid use disorder where opioids increase risk of relapse, overdose, and diversion. The appropriate response is to remain calm, document the assessment and rationale, and ensure the patient is offered safe alternatives and continuity of care. Directing him to his methadone maintenance program is best because it supports coordinated management within an established addiction-treatment framework (often with structured monitoring, agreements, and access to addiction/pain expertise).
Prescribing "a small amount" or giving an injection undermines safe prescribing practices and reinforces drug- seeking behavior. Calling police is reserved for immediate safety threats, not dissatisfaction. Lumbar radiography is not the next step unless red flags are present; it does not address the ethical issue. Coordinated care with the methadone program and non-opioid strategies is the safest, most appropriate action.

NEW QUESTION # 216
A 78-year-old man presents to the office with urinary hesitancy, straining to void his bladder, and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. On history, he has a BMI of 36 and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following medications would most likely help the patient's symptoms?

A. Nitrofurantoin.
B. Fesoterodine.
C. Empagliflozin.
D. Hydrochlorothiazide.
E. Tamsulosin.

Answer: E

Explanation:
This elderly man has classic lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) suggestive of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) : hesitancy, straining, and incomplete emptying (obstructive symptoms). MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing obstructive voiding symptoms in older men as most commonly due to prostatic enlargement causing bladder outlet obstruction.
First-line pharmacologic therapy for symptomatic BPH is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker (e.g., tamsulosin), which relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, thereby improving urinary flow and reducing obstruction. Tamsulosin works relatively quickly and is appropriate for symptomatic relief.
Nitrofurantoin treats urinary tract infections, which are not suggested here. Fesoterodine is an antimuscarinic used for overactive bladder and could worsen urinary retention in obstructive BPH. Empagliflozin (an SGLT2 inhibitor) increases urinary glucose excretion and may worsen urinary frequency. Hydrochlorothiazide increases urine output and would not relieve obstructive symptoms.
Therefore, tamsulosin is the most appropriate medication to improve this patient's symptoms.

NEW QUESTION # 217
A 45-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He currently takes a high dosage of paroxetine, which he would like to discontinue because he feels well. His condition has been stable taking this medication since he was discharged from inpatient care 2 years ago.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

A. Maintain the current dosage of paroxetine.
B. Switch paroxetine to sertraline.
C. Discontinue paroxetine and refer for supportive psychotherapy.
D. Reduce the dosage of paroxetine by 50%.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a chronic and often relapsing condition. MCCQE objectives emphasize that patients with severe OCD requiring hospitalization or prolonged high-dose SSRI therapy are at significant risk of relapse if medication is discontinued. This patient has remained stable for 2 years on a high dose of paroxetine after inpatient treatment, suggesting a history of more severe disease.
For moderate-to-severe or recurrent OCD, long-term or indefinite maintenance pharmacotherapy is often recommended, particularly when the patient has responded well and tolerated the medication. Abrupt discontinuation or large dose reductions (e.g., 50%) increase the risk of relapse and discontinuation syndrome, especially with paroxetine, which has a short half-life. Switching to another SSRI is unnecessary when the current medication is effective and tolerated. Supportive psychotherapy alone is generally insufficient for patients with previously severe OCD.
Therefore, the most appropriate recommendation is to maintain the current dosage , while discussing risks and benefits and reassessing periodically.

NEW QUESTION # 218
A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents to the labour and delivery unit for induction of labour. Her pregnancy is at 42 weeks' gestation and has been uncomplicated to date. Which one of the following is the most appropriate information to provide to the patient?

A. Cesarean delivery is preferred.
B. Prostaglandin induction of labour is contraindicated.
C. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring in labour is recommended.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This patient has a post-term pregnancy (#42 weeks' gestation). Post-term pregnancies are associated with increased risks including placental insufficiency, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, fetal macrosomia, and stillbirth. During induction and labour in post-term pregnancies, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is recommended to assess fetal well-being and detect signs of fetal distress early.
Prostaglandin induction is not contraindicated; it is commonly used for cervical ripening when indicated, provided there are no standard contraindications (e.g., prior classical cesarean). Cesarean delivery is not routinely preferred solely due to post-term status; mode of delivery should be based on obstetric indications.
According to MCCQE objectives, candidates must recognize the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and understand appropriate intrapartum management, including fetal surveillance. Continuous EFM is recommended in higher-risk situations such as post-term gestation to optimize perinatal outcomes while still aiming for safe vaginal delivery when no contraindications exist.

NEW QUESTION # 219
A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her daughter because of significant functional decline and progressive shortness of breath. She has widespread metastatic breast cancer and recently stopped chemotherapy due to progression and intolerance. She has been bedridden for 4 weeks. On examination:
* BP: 100/70 mm Hg with pulsus paradoxus of 20 mm Hg
* HR: 99/min
* Temp: 36.5°C
* SpO#: 94% room air
* JVP: elevated
* Heart sounds: muffled
* Chest X-ray: large globular heart
Labs:
* Hemoglobin: 90 g/L
* Sodium: 118 mmol/L
* Creatinine: 94 µmol/L
Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Normal saline infusion
B. Consult with the Intensive Care Unit
C. Blood transfusion
D. Pericardiocentesis
E. Discussion on goals of care

Answer: E

Explanation:
This patient has classic signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heartsounds, elevated JVP, plus pulsus paradoxus). However, she also has advanced metastatic cancer, functional decline, and has stopped active treatment. In this context, a goals-of-care discussion is the most appropriate next step to determine her wishes regarding interventions like pericardiocentesis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Palliative Care:
"End-of-life care should prioritize quality of life and patient preferences. In patients with terminal illness and life-threatening conditions (e.g., tamponade), initiate a conversation about goals before aggressive intervention." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Palliative and End-of-Life Care:
"Candidates must assess prognosis, patient values, and initiate appropriate end-of-life discussions before invasive treatment." Although pericardiocentesis (A) may relieve symptoms, it should follow consent based on the patient's goals.
ICU (E), fluids (B), or transfusion (D) are not appropriate without this discussion.

NEW QUESTION # 220
......

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